3900.The Supreme Court is a court of record. This means
1. its judgements are recorded for perpetual memory.
2. it can punish for contempt of Supreme court.
3. it can punish for contempt of High court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. its judgements are recorded for perpetual memory.
2. it can punish for contempt of Supreme court.
3. it can punish for contempt of High court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
d) 1, 2 and 3. As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has two powers:
(a) The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court. They are recognized as legal precedents and legal references.
(b) It has power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment for a term up to six months or with fine up to `2,000 or with both. In 1991, the Supreme Court has ruled that it has power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts and tribunals functioning in the entire country.
d) 1, 2 and 3. As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has two powers:
(a) The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court. They are recognized as legal precedents and legal references.
(b) It has power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment for a term up to six months or with fine up to `2,000 or with both. In 1991, the Supreme Court has ruled that it has power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts and tribunals functioning in the entire country.
3901.With reference to the Committee on Public Undertakings consider the following statements:
1. Only a Lok Sabha member can become its chairman.
2. Unlike other committees, a minister can also become its member.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only a Lok Sabha member can become its chairman.
2. Unlike other committees, a minister can also become its member.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
a) 1 only. A minister cannot become its member. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. Thus, the members of the Committee who are from the Rajya Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.
a) 1 only. A minister cannot become its member. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. Thus, the members of the Committee who are from the Rajya Sabha cannot be appointed as the chairman.
3902.Consider an ordinary bill that originated in the legislative assembly and is sent to the legislative council. If the council rejects the bill then
a joint sitting is called.
the bill ends and becomes dead
legislative assembly passes the bill for the second time.
none of the above
Explanation:
c) legislative assembly passes the bill for the second time. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time and not vice versa. The mechanism of passing the bill for the second time to resolve a deadlock applies to a bill originating in the legislative assembly only. When a bill, which has originated in the legislative council and sent to the legislative assembly, is rejected by the latter, the bill ends and becomes dead. The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.
c) legislative assembly passes the bill for the second time. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time and not vice versa. The mechanism of passing the bill for the second time to resolve a deadlock applies to a bill originating in the legislative assembly only. When a bill, which has originated in the legislative council and sent to the legislative assembly, is rejected by the latter, the bill ends and becomes dead. The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.
3903.Article 33 empowers the parliament to restrict or abrogate the Fundamental Rights of
1. members of armed forces.
2. members of para-military forces.
3. non-combatatants employee of armed forces like barber, carpenters etc.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. members of armed forces.
2. members of para-military forces.
3. non-combatatants employee of armed forces like barber, carpenters etc.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 only
2 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
d) 1, 2 and 3. Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces.The expression members of the armed forces also covers such employees of the armed forces as barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, bootmakers, tailors who are non-combatants.
d) 1, 2 and 3. Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces.The expression members of the armed forces also covers such employees of the armed forces as barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, bootmakers, tailors who are non-combatants.
3904.With reference to recognized political party, consider the following statements:
1. The status is contingent on the performance of a party.
2. All recognized parties are either a National party or a State party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The status is contingent on the performance of a party.
2. All recognized parties are either a National party or a State party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
c) Both 1 and 2. The status is of recognized party is contingent on the performance of a party. All recognized parties are either a National party or a State party.
c) Both 1 and 2. The status is of recognized party is contingent on the performance of a party. All recognized parties are either a National party or a State party.
3905.Consider the following statements about National emergency:
1. A revocation of emergency by President must be approved by the Parliament within one month.
2. The President must revoke a proclamation of emergency if the Parliament passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A revocation of emergency by President must be approved by the Parliament within one month.
2. The President must revoke a proclamation of emergency if the Parliament passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
d) Neither 1 nor 2. A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval. Further, the President must revoke a proclamation if the Lok Sabha ( and not Parliament) passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.
d) Neither 1 nor 2. A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval. Further, the President must revoke a proclamation if the Lok Sabha ( and not Parliament) passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.
3906.The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on
1. public order
2. police
3. land
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. public order
2. police
3. land
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
none
Explanation:
d) none. These subjects are within the state list but only Parliament can make laws on them in case of Delhi.
d) none. These subjects are within the state list but only Parliament can make laws on them in case of Delhi.
3907.Who among the following takes the oath to uphold the constitution and the laws?
1. President
2. CAG
3. Supreme court Judge
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. President
2. CAG
3. Supreme court Judge
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
2 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
Explanation:
d) 2 and 3 only. President takes an oath to preserve, protect and defend the constitution.
d) 2 and 3 only. President takes an oath to preserve, protect and defend the constitution.
3908.The Supreme Court quashed section 66A of the IT act. It did so on which of the following basis?
1. the punishment prescribed was extreme.
2. expressions in the section were vague.
3. it had no proximate relationship to public order.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. the punishment prescribed was extreme.
2. expressions in the section were vague.
3. it had no proximate relationship to public order.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
c) 2 and 3 only.
Statement 1 is false. The SC never said anything like that about the punishments prescribed.
Vague expressions Section 66A reads: Any person who sends by any means of a computer resource any information that is grossly offensive or has a menacing character; or any information which he knows to be false, but for the purpose of causing annoyance, inconvenience, danger, obstruction, insult shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and with fine. The court said terms like annoying, inconvenient and grossly offensive, used in the provision are vague as it is difficult for the law enforcement agency and the offender to know the ingredients of the offence.
Regarding the contention of the State that Section 66A can be supported under the heads of public order, defamation, incitement to an offence and decency or morality, the Court reiterated its earlier stand that it is not open to the State to curtail freedom of speech to promote the general public interest. The Court held that the Section 66A had no proximate relationship to public order whatsoever and mere annoyance need not cause disturbance of public order. the Court concluded that the said section 66A had no element of any tendency to create public disorder which ought to be an essential ingredient of the offence which it create
c) 2 and 3 only.
Statement 1 is false. The SC never said anything like that about the punishments prescribed.
Vague expressions Section 66A reads: Any person who sends by any means of a computer resource any information that is grossly offensive or has a menacing character; or any information which he knows to be false, but for the purpose of causing annoyance, inconvenience, danger, obstruction, insult shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and with fine. The court said terms like annoying, inconvenient and grossly offensive, used in the provision are vague as it is difficult for the law enforcement agency and the offender to know the ingredients of the offence.
Regarding the contention of the State that Section 66A can be supported under the heads of public order, defamation, incitement to an offence and decency or morality, the Court reiterated its earlier stand that it is not open to the State to curtail freedom of speech to promote the general public interest. The Court held that the Section 66A had no proximate relationship to public order whatsoever and mere annoyance need not cause disturbance of public order. the Court concluded that the said section 66A had no element of any tendency to create public disorder which ought to be an essential ingredient of the offence which it create
3909.The articles of the constitution which has a bearing on the rights of women are
1. Article 15
2. Article 42
3. Article 39
4. Article 123
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. Article 15
2. Article 42
3. Article 39
4. Article 123
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1, 2 and 3 only
1 ,3 and 4 only
2 ,3 and 4 only
1 ,2, and 4 only
Explanation:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only.Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth Article 39(d) equal pay for equal work for men and women; Article 42 To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief. Article 123 is related with ordinance making power of President and hence do not have any relation to rights of women.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only.Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth Article 39(d) equal pay for equal work for men and women; Article 42 To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief. Article 123 is related with ordinance making power of President and hence do not have any relation to rights of women.
3910.Which of the following is/are a part of the participatory development process?
1. State
2. NGOs
3. Pressure groups
4. Cooperatives
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. State
2. NGOs
3. Pressure groups
4. Cooperatives
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1, 2 and 3 only
1 ,3 and 4 only
2 ,3 and 4 only
1 ,2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. In participatory development (PD), people are willingly involved in a wide range of development activities, as agents and beneficiaries of development. Participatory development seeks to engage local populations in development projects. It is clear from the definition of PD that NGOs, Pressure Groups, and Cooperatives are involved in it. There might be some confusion over how state is a part of PD. It is actually the state activity that can facilitate or hinder PD. If state does not allow NGOs or pressure groups, how can they function? On the other hand, states through their policy and support can facilitate PD. In last few years, the role of the state in participatory development has changed: from the reconstruction and development programme to growth, employment and redistribution.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. In participatory development (PD), people are willingly involved in a wide range of development activities, as agents and beneficiaries of development. Participatory development seeks to engage local populations in development projects. It is clear from the definition of PD that NGOs, Pressure Groups, and Cooperatives are involved in it. There might be some confusion over how state is a part of PD. It is actually the state activity that can facilitate or hinder PD. If state does not allow NGOs or pressure groups, how can they function? On the other hand, states through their policy and support can facilitate PD. In last few years, the role of the state in participatory development has changed: from the reconstruction and development programme to growth, employment and redistribution.
3911.With reference to regionalism, consider the following statements:
1. Regionalism is a disintegrating force unlike nationalism which is a unifying force.
2. Regionalism is not conducive with the idea of federalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Regionalism is a disintegrating force unlike nationalism which is a unifying force.
2. Regionalism is not conducive with the idea of federalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
d) Neither 1 nor 2. Regionalism is not necessarily bad. Not all forms of regionalism are against national unity or nationalism. Regionalism can and has existed within the larger framework of nationalism. In this respect, regionalism has helped various regions put their demands before the central leadership. Regionalism is very much conducive to the idea of federalism. Both are helpful in governing large and diverse countries like India. However, at times regionalism has taken forms of secessionism, which goes against national unity. Similarly, at times it has also given rise to hatred among ethnic groups which disturbs national unity and harmony.
d) Neither 1 nor 2. Regionalism is not necessarily bad. Not all forms of regionalism are against national unity or nationalism. Regionalism can and has existed within the larger framework of nationalism. In this respect, regionalism has helped various regions put their demands before the central leadership. Regionalism is very much conducive to the idea of federalism. Both are helpful in governing large and diverse countries like India. However, at times regionalism has taken forms of secessionism, which goes against national unity. Similarly, at times it has also given rise to hatred among ethnic groups which disturbs national unity and harmony.
3912.In a democracy, civil services plays an important role in
1. policy making
2. policy implementation
3. socio-economic development
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. policy making
2. policy implementation
3. socio-economic development
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
d) 1, 2 and 3. Policy implementation and socio -economic development is understood. Some might think how policy making is a role of civil servants. Remember, policies are made on the basis of information and expert knowledge. Civil servants on account of their information and expertise advise politicians on policy making. In reality, its the civil servants that make policies. They can conceal or exaggerate information to drive policy in a particular direction.
d) 1, 2 and 3. Policy implementation and socio -economic development is understood. Some might think how policy making is a role of civil servants. Remember, policies are made on the basis of information and expert knowledge. Civil servants on account of their information and expertise advise politicians on policy making. In reality, its the civil servants that make policies. They can conceal or exaggerate information to drive policy in a particular direction.
3913.The collegiums system of appointment of judges has been criticized on the basis that it leads to
1. undue interference by executive.
2. submissiveness of puisne judges.
3. destruction of judicial independence
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. undue interference by executive.
2. submissiveness of puisne judges.
3. destruction of judicial independence
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
b) 2 only. In the collegiums system, Judges appoint judges and there is no role of executive. So, statement 1 and 3 are incorrect. It has been argued that the collegiums system has lead to submissiveness of the puisne judges as they may not want to go against their senior judges who may appoint them to higher positions later. Context This has been in news throughout 2014.
b) 2 only. In the collegiums system, Judges appoint judges and there is no role of executive. So, statement 1 and 3 are incorrect. It has been argued that the collegiums system has lead to submissiveness of the puisne judges as they may not want to go against their senior judges who may appoint them to higher positions later. Context This has been in news throughout 2014.
3914.The Election process in India follows the First past the post (FPTP) system. THE FPTP system offers many advantages like
1. providing a proportionate outcome of seats based on votes.
2. less wastage of votes.
3. establishing a clear link between representatives and constituencies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. providing a proportionate outcome of seats based on votes.
2. less wastage of votes.
3. establishing a clear link between representatives and constituencies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
Explanation:
c) 3 only The first two statements are actually the demerits of the FPTP system. There is a mismatch between seat share and vote share. With only a few percent increases in vote share the seats can increase drastically. Votes polled in excess of the votes required to win and those polled for losing candidates are in a sense wasted. Candidates win even after securing as low as 20% votes. However, FPTP system helps establish a clear link between constituency and representative. People know before elections who will represent their constituency.
c) 3 only The first two statements are actually the demerits of the FPTP system. There is a mismatch between seat share and vote share. With only a few percent increases in vote share the seats can increase drastically. Votes polled in excess of the votes required to win and those polled for losing candidates are in a sense wasted. Candidates win even after securing as low as 20% votes. However, FPTP system helps establish a clear link between constituency and representative. People know before elections who will represent their constituency.
3915.With reference to government and governance, consider the following statements:
1. Government is the structure while governance is a process.
2. There can be governance without a government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Government is the structure while governance is a process.
2. There can be governance without a government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
c) Both 1 and 2. Governance is what government does. Governance happens everywhere and involves business and markets, Pressure groups and NGOs etc. So, there can be governance without government.
c) Both 1 and 2. Governance is what government does. Governance happens everywhere and involves business and markets, Pressure groups and NGOs etc. So, there can be governance without government.
3916.Apart from law making, Indian parliament also performs the function of
1. providing representation.
2. constraining executive power.
3. providing legitimacy to government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. providing representation.
2. constraining executive power.
3. providing legitimacy to government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
d) 1, 2 and 3. Parliament provides a mechanism to represent people in rule making. They act as checks and balances to the executive power e.g. any law proposed by government has to passed in parliament; it examines demands for grants, scrutinizes expenditure etc. In this way, it provides legitimacy to a government making people see the government as ruling in their favour.
d) 1, 2 and 3. Parliament provides a mechanism to represent people in rule making. They act as checks and balances to the executive power e.g. any law proposed by government has to passed in parliament; it examines demands for grants, scrutinizes expenditure etc. In this way, it provides legitimacy to a government making people see the government as ruling in their favour.
3917.The major benefits of federalism is/are
1. it helps in quick decision making.
2. it gives voice to regional interests.
3. it creates a network of checks and balances.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. it helps in quick decision making.
2. it gives voice to regional interests.
3. it creates a network of checks and balances.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
Explanation:
d) 2 and 3 only. Federalism divides the government power between centre and state. At times there may be disagreements between central and state government (e.g. the case of GST). This actually hinders quick decision making. Federalism brings government closer to people helping regional issues gain prominence thus giving voice to regional interests. By dividing government power, it creates a network of checks and balances.
d) 2 and 3 only. Federalism divides the government power between centre and state. At times there may be disagreements between central and state government (e.g. the case of GST). This actually hinders quick decision making. Federalism brings government closer to people helping regional issues gain prominence thus giving voice to regional interests. By dividing government power, it creates a network of checks and balances.
3918.Consider the following statements about private members :
1. MPs who are not ministers are called private members.
2. Private members can introduce a constitutional amendment bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. MPs who are not ministers are called private members.
2. Private members can introduce a constitutional amendment bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
c) Both 1 and 2. In Lok Sabha, the last two and a half hours of a sitting on every Friday are generally allotted for transaction of Private Members Business, i.e., Private Members Bills and Private Members Resolutions. Every member of Parliament, who is not a Minister, is called a Private Member. Private members CAN introduce a constitutional amendment bill.
c) Both 1 and 2. In Lok Sabha, the last two and a half hours of a sitting on every Friday are generally allotted for transaction of Private Members Business, i.e., Private Members Bills and Private Members Resolutions. Every member of Parliament, who is not a Minister, is called a Private Member. Private members CAN introduce a constitutional amendment bill.
3919.Which of the following actions can the parliament take with respect to any particular tax?
1. increase it
2. decrease it
3. abolish it
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. increase it
2. decrease it
3. abolish it
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
c) 2 and 3 only. Parliament can either decrease a tax or abolish it, but cannot increase it. A notable point.
c) 2 and 3 only. Parliament can either decrease a tax or abolish it, but cannot increase it. A notable point.
3920.With reference to starred questions, consider the following statements :
1. Starred questions are important and hence answer to them have to be given in written form.
2. Answers to starred questions can be followed by supplementary questions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Starred questions are important and hence answer to them have to be given in written form.
2. Answers to starred questions can be followed by supplementary questions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
b) 2 only.A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon. Only 20 questions can be listed for oral answer on a day.
b) 2 only.A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon. Only 20 questions can be listed for oral answer on a day.
3921.Indian constitution is a combination of federal and non-federal features. Point out the non-federal features from these:
1. All India Services
2. Flexibility of the constitution
3. Supremacy of constitution
4. Bicameralism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. All India Services
2. Flexibility of the constitution
3. Supremacy of constitution
4. Bicameralism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
Explanation:
a) 1 and 2 only. All India Services increases the power of Centre by allowing them some control over state administration, thus its non-federal. A flexible constitution which can be easily changed by the Centre without states consultation, skews power in respect of states and thus in non-federal. The rest two Supremacy of constitution and Bicameralism are federal features.
a) 1 and 2 only. All India Services increases the power of Centre by allowing them some control over state administration, thus its non-federal. A flexible constitution which can be easily changed by the Centre without states consultation, skews power in respect of states and thus in non-federal. The rest two Supremacy of constitution and Bicameralism are federal features.
3922.Which among the following is an informal device in Indian parliamentary practice?
1. Question hour
2. Zero hour
3. Half-an-hour discussion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. Question hour
2. Zero hour
3. Half-an-hour discussion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
Explanation:
b) 2 only. When a member feels that the answer given to a question is not complete or does not give the desired information, he may be allowed by the Speaker to raise a discussion in the House for half an hour. The procedure is, therefore, termed as Half-an-Hour Discussion. Zero hour is an informal device, not mentioned in any rules of the Parliament. Question hour, the first hour of a sitting, of course is the most important formal device.
b) 2 only. When a member feels that the answer given to a question is not complete or does not give the desired information, he may be allowed by the Speaker to raise a discussion in the House for half an hour. The procedure is, therefore, termed as Half-an-Hour Discussion. Zero hour is an informal device, not mentioned in any rules of the Parliament. Question hour, the first hour of a sitting, of course is the most important formal device.
3923.Fundamental Duties (FDs) were added in 1976. Which among these are FDs?
1. to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest
2. to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country
3. to safeguard public property and to abjure violence
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest
2. to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country
3. to safeguard public property and to abjure violence
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
c) 3 only. 1 and 2 are DPSP. Environment protection is both in FD and DPSP, so often people gets confused. The FD related to environment is to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures.
c) 3 only. 1 and 2 are DPSP. Environment protection is both in FD and DPSP, so often people gets confused. The FD related to environment is to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures.
3924.With reference to cut motions, consider the following statements :
1. Cut motions are moved only in Lok Sabha.
2. The speaker decides whether a cut motion is admissible or not.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. Cut motions are moved only in Lok Sabha.
2. The speaker decides whether a cut motion is admissible or not.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
c) Both 1 and 2. Cut motion is a power given to the members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand in the financial bill discussed by the government. If a cut motion is adopted by the House and the government does not have the numbers, it is obliged to resign. The Speaker shall decide whether a cut motion is or is not admissible under the rules and may disallow any cut motion when in his opinion it is an abuse of the right of moving cut motions.
c) Both 1 and 2. Cut motion is a power given to the members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand in the financial bill discussed by the government. If a cut motion is adopted by the House and the government does not have the numbers, it is obliged to resign. The Speaker shall decide whether a cut motion is or is not admissible under the rules and may disallow any cut motion when in his opinion it is an abuse of the right of moving cut motions.
3925.Among the following, which is/are a part of Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) ?
1. Gram Nyayalaya
2. Fast Track Courts
3. Lok Adalats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. Gram Nyayalaya
2. Fast Track Courts
3. Lok Adalats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
b) 1 and 3 only. Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) refers to any means of settling disputes outside of the courtroom. ADR typically includes early neutral evaluation, negotiation, conciliation, mediation, and arbitration. Fast track courts are not ADR, but special mechanism of the judiciary.
b) 1 and 3 only. Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) refers to any means of settling disputes outside of the courtroom. ADR typically includes early neutral evaluation, negotiation, conciliation, mediation, and arbitration. Fast track courts are not ADR, but special mechanism of the judiciary.
3926.Parliamentary authorization for payments is required for :
1. Public account of India
2. Consolidated fund of India
3. Contingency Fund of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. Public account of India
2. Consolidated fund of India
3. Contingency Fund of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1,2 and 3
Explanation:
b) 2 only. Parliamentary authorization is only required for Consolidated fund of India.
b) 2 only. Parliamentary authorization is only required for Consolidated fund of India.
3927.Who among the following participates in the election of Vice-President ?
1. elected MPs
2. nominated MPs
3. elected MLAS
4. nominated MLAs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. elected MPs
2. nominated MPs
3. elected MLAS
4. nominated MLAs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
Explanation:
a) 1 and 2 only. All MPs ( elected + nominated ) participate in VPs election. MLAs have no role.
a) 1 and 2 only. All MPs ( elected + nominated ) participate in VPs election. MLAs have no role.
3928.The central government has decided to move the following bills in the coming session of parliament. Which of these can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha ?
1. a bill for imposition of fine for spitting on roads as part of Swachha Bharat Abhiyan
2. a bill for limiting the borrowing of money by government to reduced fiscal deficit.
3. a bill for imposition of luxury tax on expensive items
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. a bill for imposition of fine for spitting on roads as part of Swachha Bharat Abhiyan
2. a bill for limiting the borrowing of money by government to reduced fiscal deficit.
3. a bill for imposition of luxury tax on expensive items
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
c) 2 and 3 only. Basically the question is asking you that which of those are money bill. The definition and details of money bill are given in article 110. Money bill includes (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money by the Government of India (c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India (d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India; (e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India (g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f). Imposition of fines/penalties are NOT considered money bill. Also please note that these are just imaginary bills that I framed for the question :)
c) 2 and 3 only. Basically the question is asking you that which of those are money bill. The definition and details of money bill are given in article 110. Money bill includes (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax; (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money by the Government of India (c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India (d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India; (e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India (g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f). Imposition of fines/penalties are NOT considered money bill. Also please note that these are just imaginary bills that I framed for the question :)
3929.Suppose the Lok Sabha has been adjourned by the speaker. Then which of the following would take place
1. all pending notices would lapse.
2. a bill pending in lok sabha lapses.
3. a bill passed by both houses but pending assent by president does not lapse
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. all pending notices would lapse.
2. a bill pending in lok sabha lapses.
3. a bill passed by both houses but pending assent by president does not lapse
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
None
Explanation:
d) None. Yes, none because adjournment just terminates a sitting. Prorogation terminates a session in which all pending notices gets lapsed. It is in dissolution, (which ends the very life of lok sabha ) that certain types of pending bill gets lapsed.
d) None. Yes, none because adjournment just terminates a sitting. Prorogation terminates a session in which all pending notices gets lapsed. It is in dissolution, (which ends the very life of lok sabha ) that certain types of pending bill gets lapsed.
3930.The constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. This can be seen from :
1. rigidity of constitution
2. single citizenship
3. all-India services
4. supremacy of constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. rigidity of constitution
2. single citizenship
3. all-India services
4. supremacy of constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 4 only
Explanation:
d) 1 and 4 only. A rigid constitution would be difficult to get amended by the central government alone. it would require the support of states. Thus it is a part of federal feature. Similarly supremacy of the constitution protects the powers of states enhancing the federal feature. The rest two single citizenship and all-India services are unitary feature as it increases the power of the centre.
d) 1 and 4 only. A rigid constitution would be difficult to get amended by the central government alone. it would require the support of states. Thus it is a part of federal feature. Similarly supremacy of the constitution protects the powers of states enhancing the federal feature. The rest two single citizenship and all-India services are unitary feature as it increases the power of the centre.
3931.The Indian Supreme Court is a court of records. This means :
1. it has power to punish for contempt of court.
2. it can punish for comment on its administrative side.
3. its judgments are recorded for testimony
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. it has power to punish for contempt of court.
2. it can punish for comment on its administrative side.
3. its judgments are recorded for testimony
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
b) 1 and 3 only. Please note that comment on courts administrative side is not punishable as are any fair and reasonable criticism. Contempt of court both civil and criminal are punishable. The courts judgments are recorded for perpetual memory and serve as a legal reference.
b) 1 and 3 only. Please note that comment on courts administrative side is not punishable as are any fair and reasonable criticism. Contempt of court both civil and criminal are punishable. The courts judgments are recorded for perpetual memory and serve as a legal reference.
3932.With reference to resolutions ,consider the following statements :
1. All resolutions are motion.
2. All resolutions are required to be voted upon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. All resolutions are motion.
2. All resolutions are required to be voted upon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
c) Both 1 and 2. Resolutions are a type of motion the substantive motion. A substantive motion is a self-contained independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House. They are required to be voted upon by the house.
c) Both 1 and 2. Resolutions are a type of motion the substantive motion. A substantive motion is a self-contained independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a way as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House. They are required to be voted upon by the house.
3933.Rajya Sabha is inferior to Lok Sabha in many aspects and thus has unequal status with respect to it in many cases. These include
1. approval of ordinances
2. approval of national emergency
3. voting on demand for grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. approval of ordinances
2. approval of national emergency
3. voting on demand for grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
Explanation:
c) 3 only. Rajya Sabha has equal power in both approval of ordinances and approval of national emergency. Its in revocation of emergency that only Lok Sabhas approval is needed. And ofcourse, only lok sabha had the power to vote on demand for grants, while rajya sabha can only discuss it.
c) 3 only. Rajya Sabha has equal power in both approval of ordinances and approval of national emergency. Its in revocation of emergency that only Lok Sabhas approval is needed. And ofcourse, only lok sabha had the power to vote on demand for grants, while rajya sabha can only discuss it.
3934.The Indian Parliament is not sovereign. This is because of :
1. institution of CAG as a supreme auditor
2. Judicial review
3. Federal system of government
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. institution of CAG as a supreme auditor
2. Judicial review
3. Federal system of government
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
c) 2 and 3 only. Statement is arbitrary. An audit institution like CAG has no relation with sovereignty of Parliament. Both judicial review and federal system constrains the power of parliament and thus Indian parliament is not sovereign. Apart from these, written constitution and Fundamental rights also constrains the power of parliament.
c) 2 and 3 only. Statement is arbitrary. An audit institution like CAG has no relation with sovereignty of Parliament. Both judicial review and federal system constrains the power of parliament and thus Indian parliament is not sovereign. Apart from these, written constitution and Fundamental rights also constrains the power of parliament.
3935.With reference to Armed Forces Special powers Act (AFSPA), who among the following can declare an area as disturbed area?
1. Governor
2. Chief Minister
3. Central Government
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. Governor
2. Chief Minister
3. Central Government
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
b) 1 and 3 only.The power to declare an area disturbed lies with the Governor or the Central Government, who have to form an opinion that the use of armed forces in the aid of civil power is essential and then notify it as disturbed area. The declaration of an area as a disturbed area is for a limited duration and review of the declaration before the expiry of six months has to be undertaken by the executive. The 1972 amendments to AFSPA extended the power to declare an area disturbed to the Central Government whereas in the 1958 version of AFSPA, only the state Governor had the power
b) 1 and 3 only.The power to declare an area disturbed lies with the Governor or the Central Government, who have to form an opinion that the use of armed forces in the aid of civil power is essential and then notify it as disturbed area. The declaration of an area as a disturbed area is for a limited duration and review of the declaration before the expiry of six months has to be undertaken by the executive. The 1972 amendments to AFSPA extended the power to declare an area disturbed to the Central Government whereas in the 1958 version of AFSPA, only the state Governor had the power
3936.India has signed the international treaty for prevention of corruption ( UNCAC ). To implement this treaty throughout the country the Parliament needs the consent of :
all states
at least half the states
two or more states
None
Explanation:
d) None. The parliament can make a law for implementation of an international treaty without the consent of any state. This has been clearly stated in article 253 Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body.
d) None. The parliament can make a law for implementation of an international treaty without the consent of any state. This has been clearly stated in article 253 Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body.
3937.The centre and states have their own respective sources of revenues. Which of the following is levied by the centre ?
1. professional tax
2. corporation tax
3. excise duty on liquor
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. professional tax
2. corporation tax
3. excise duty on liquor
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
b) 2 only. If you are a working employee, you might have noticed a professional tax in your salary slip, which is levied by the state government. Excise duty of liquor is also levied by state government. And Ofcourse, everyone knows that corporation tax is levied by centre.
b) 2 only. If you are a working employee, you might have noticed a professional tax in your salary slip, which is levied by the state government. Excise duty of liquor is also levied by state government. And Ofcourse, everyone knows that corporation tax is levied by centre.
3938.The Election Commission of India consists of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two election commissioners (EC). With regard to these two officials, which of the following is/are correct?
1. CEC and EC receive equal salary.
2. CEC and EC are provided with security of tenure.
3. In case of difference of opinion amongst them, the view of CEC prevails.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. CEC and EC receive equal salary.
2. CEC and EC are provided with security of tenure.
3. In case of difference of opinion amongst them, the view of CEC prevails.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Explanation:
a) 1 only. The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority. Only the chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. Election commissioners can be removed from office on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner.
a) 1 only. The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority. Only the chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. Election commissioners can be removed from office on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner.
3939.Suppose Bihar legislative assembly passes a bill and forwards it to legislative council which rejects it. What happens to the bill then ?
a joint sitting is called for by the Governor.
the bill ends and become dead.
legislative assembly can pass the bill second time to override legislative council.
(a) or (c) depending on the type of bill.
Explanation:
c) legislative assembly can pass the bill second time to override legislative council. The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time. Therefore the final power of passing an ordinary bill lies with the assembly. At the most, the council can detain or delay the bill for the period of four months.
c) legislative assembly can pass the bill second time to override legislative council. The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time. Therefore the final power of passing an ordinary bill lies with the assembly. At the most, the council can detain or delay the bill for the period of four months.
3940.The original jurisdiction of the High Court includes:
1. disputes related to the election of MPs
2. disputes related to the election of MLAs
3. cases related to murder
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. disputes related to the election of MPs
2. disputes related to the election of MLAs
3. cases related to murder
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
a) 1 and 2 only. Original jurisdiction means the power of a high court to hear disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal. High courts do not have any original criminal jurisdiction and thus cases related to murders can be taken to High court only as appeal. The original jurisdiction includes (a) Matters of admirality, will, marriage, divorce, company laws and contempt of court. (b) Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures. (c) Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection. (d) Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens. (e) Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the Constitution to its own file.
a) 1 and 2 only. Original jurisdiction means the power of a high court to hear disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal. High courts do not have any original criminal jurisdiction and thus cases related to murders can be taken to High court only as appeal. The original jurisdiction includes (a) Matters of admirality, will, marriage, divorce, company laws and contempt of court. (b) Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures. (c) Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection. (d) Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens. (e) Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the Constitution to its own file.
3941.With reference to Vice-President of India ,consider the following statements :
1. If the Vice-President suddenly resigns, then election to fill the vacancy
should be held within six months.
2. A Vice-President can be removed on the grounds of violation of constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. If the Vice-President suddenly resigns, then election to fill the vacancy
should be held within six months.
2. A Vice-President can be removed on the grounds of violation of constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
d) Neither 1 nor 2. Both the statements are true for President and not VP. If the Vice-President suddenly resigns, then election to fill the vacancy should be held as soon as possible. The constitution mentions no ground for removal of VP.
d) Neither 1 nor 2. Both the statements are true for President and not VP. If the Vice-President suddenly resigns, then election to fill the vacancy should be held as soon as possible. The constitution mentions no ground for removal of VP.
3942.In India, the council of ministers have:
1. Individual responsibility
2. legal responsibility
3. collective responsibility
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. Individual responsibility
2. legal responsibility
3. collective responsibility
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
a) 1 and 3 only. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of ommission and commission. Article 75 contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president. In India there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of a minister. It is not required that an order of the President for a public act should be countersigned by a minister.
a) 1 and 3 only. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of ommission and commission. Article 75 contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president. In India there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of a minister. It is not required that an order of the President for a public act should be countersigned by a minister.
3943.The Union executive of India consists of :
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Prime Minister
4. Council of Ministers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Prime Minister
4. Council of Ministers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1, 2 and 3 only
1 ,3 and 4 only
2 ,3 and 4 only
1 ,2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4. All four are the parts of the union executive of India. Some of you might have excluded VP, but please remember the VP is also a part of union executive.
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4. All four are the parts of the union executive of India. Some of you might have excluded VP, but please remember the VP is also a part of union executive.
3944.With reference to removal of chairman of a state public service commission, consider the following statements :
1. they can be removed for misbehaviour.
2. they can be removed only by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. they can be removed for misbehaviour.
2. they can be removed only by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
c) Both 1 and 2. Although the chairman of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor). They can be removed on the grounds of misbehaviour. The Constitution states that the chairman or any other member of a SPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour, if he (a) is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the government of a state, or (b) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common with other members of an incorporated company.
c) Both 1 and 2. Although the chairman of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor). They can be removed on the grounds of misbehaviour. The Constitution states that the chairman or any other member of a SPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour, if he (a) is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India or the government of a state, or (b) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common with other members of an incorporated company.
3945.During a national emergency, the President can:
1. reduce the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
2. increase the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
3. cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. reduce the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
2. increase the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
3. cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to states.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 only
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
c) 1 and 3 only. While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states. This means that the president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the states. So statement 2 about increasing the transfer of finances from Centre to states is incorrect.
c) 1 and 3 only. While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and the states. This means that the president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the states. So statement 2 about increasing the transfer of finances from Centre to states is incorrect.
3946.Which of the following bodies concerned with Inter-State relations are constitutional?
1. River water tribunals
2. Inter-State Councils
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. River water tribunals
2. Inter-State Councils
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
None
Explanation:
b) 2 only. River water tribunals are setup under an act and therefore are not constitutional. Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes.Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956). The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley.Inter-State Councils are constitutional body under article 263. Zonal councils were setup under the State reorganisation act, 1956 and are thus not constitutional.
b) 2 only. River water tribunals are setup under an act and therefore are not constitutional. Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes.Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956). The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley.Inter-State Councils are constitutional body under article 263. Zonal councils were setup under the State reorganisation act, 1956 and are thus not constitutional.
3947.The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on which of the following matters?
1. public order
2. police
3. land
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. public order
2. police
3. land
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 only
2 only
3 only
None
Explanation:
d) None. The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List except the three matters of the State List, that is, public order, police and land. Therefore, critics have often called Delhi no more than a senior municipality.
d) None. The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List except the three matters of the State List, that is, public order, police and land. Therefore, critics have often called Delhi no more than a senior municipality.
3948.Which of the following is correct?
All the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by State Legislative Assemblies.
Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-President.
While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any state in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting.
The Constitution explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a Minister.
3949.In the case of disagreement on a Bill, in the two Houses of Parliament
A special Parliamentary Committee is formed to resolve the situation.
The Prime Minister intervenes.
The President casts a deciding vote.
A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is convene